Bilbo
01-31-2009, 11:48 PM
In the past decade, advances in biochemistry and genetics have found a positive correlation for the dissimilarity of two partners' genetics and attraction between partners (including sexual satisfaction).
http://www.boingboing.net/2008/12/05/birth-control-pill-m.html
http://query.nytimes.com/gst/fullpage.html?sec=health&res=9D00E2DB1139F933A25754C0A960958260
What do you guys think about the moral implications of such a finding, assuming that dissimilar genetics may be a factor in causing attraction?
Note that there are ways to signal genetic makeup without physical contact, eg. smell
What are your personal experiences? Do you have the same phenotypical expressions, mainly, but not limited to, illness, as your partner?
http://www.boingboing.net/2008/12/05/birth-control-pill-m.html
http://query.nytimes.com/gst/fullpage.html?sec=health&res=9D00E2DB1139F933A25754C0A960958260
What do you guys think about the moral implications of such a finding, assuming that dissimilar genetics may be a factor in causing attraction?
Note that there are ways to signal genetic makeup without physical contact, eg. smell
What are your personal experiences? Do you have the same phenotypical expressions, mainly, but not limited to, illness, as your partner?